Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 01:48
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
Why don’t the little sugar breeches gun owners understand that life isn’t all sunshine and rainbows?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Is it possible to achieve spiritual enlightenment while being in a romantic relationship?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.